• @chumbalumber@lemmy.blahaj.zone
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    11 months ago

    You don’t have to, but it seems perfectly easy since you don’t have to write anything down to solve it. c*sin(arctan(b/a)) gives b, and c*cos(arctan(b/a)) gives a. I’m not disputing that you can do it without, but I don’t think it’s necessarily any quicker or easier.